I do not know if this question has posted before.
Right off the bat, I do not post it now as any criticism of Dr. LaVey or the Satanic Bible.
On the contrary, I have the utmost regard and respect for both.
It regards the phrase "Ave Satanas" or "Rege Satanas"
A person who claims to know Latin said to me that this form is incorrect and improperly used.
It should be according to them, "Ave Satana" in proper Latin.
I take the Satanic Bible/Rituals very seriously and took the comment as an affront to it and to Dr LaVey.
The person phrased it in such a way that it was a direct criticism and insult to Dr. LaVey and the Satanic Bible, which I found offensive and took immediate exception to.
I did not like being corrected upon the matter.
It is not the first time it has cropped up.
Yeah. I could tell em to f#ck off.
In the big picture, it isnt an earth shaking matter.
That would be the easiest course. Not quite as satisfying as having even subjective or circumstantial evidence to the contrary to smugly rub in their face.
That being said, I would like to know if there is any logical or etymological arguement or evidence that "Ave Satanas" is a correct form.